Joh 11:2 | RWP | e4.org | And it was that Mary which anointed the Lord with ointment, and wiped his feet with her hair ( ην δε Μαριαμ η αλειψασα τον κυριον μυρω κα εκμαξασα τους ποδας αυτου ταις θριξιν αυτης ). This description is added to make plainer who Mary is "whose brother Lazarus was sick" ( ης ο αδελφος Λαζαρος ησθενε ). There is an evident proleptic allusion to the incident described by John in just after chapter 11. As John looks back from the end of the century it was all behind him, though the anointing ( η αλειψασα , first aorist active articular participle of αλειφω , old verb for which see ) took place after the events in chapter 11. The aorist participle is timeless and merely pictures the punctiliar act. The same remark applies to εκμαξασα , old verb εκμασσω , to wipe off or away ( ; ; , ). Note the Aramaic form Μαριαμ as usual in John, but Μαριας in verse . When John wrote, it was as Jesus had foretold ( ), for the fame of Mary of Bethany rested on the incident of the anointing of Jesus. The effort to link Mary of Bethany with Mary Magdalene and then both names with the sinful woman of is gratuitous and to my mind grotesque and cruel to the memory of both Mary of Bethany and Mary Magdalene. Bernard may be taken as a specimen: "The conclusion is inevitable that John (or his editor) regarded Mary of Bethany as the same person who is described by Luke as αμαρτωλος ." This critical and artistic heresy has already been discussed in Vol. II on Luke's Gospel. Suffice it here to say that Luke introduces Mary Magdalene as an entirely new character in and that the details in ; have only superficial resemblances and serious disagreements. John is not here alluding to Luke's record, but preparing for his own in chapter 12. What earthly difficulty is there in two different women under wholly different circumstances doing a similar act for utterly different purposes?

‏ John 11:2

And it was that Mary which anointed the Lord with ointment, and wiped his feet with her hair ( ην δε Μαριαμ η αλειψασα τον κυριον μυρω κα εκμαξασα τους ποδας αυτου ταις θριξιν αυτης ). This description is added to make plainer who Mary is "whose brother Lazarus was sick" ( ης ο αδελφος Λαζαρος ησθενε ). There is an evident proleptic allusion to the incident described by John in 12:1-8 just after chapter 11. As John looks back from the end of the century it was all behind him, though the anointing ( η αλειψασα, first aorist active articular participle of αλειφω, old verb for which see Mr 6:13) took place after the events in chapter 11. The aorist participle is timeless and merely pictures the punctiliar act. The same remark applies to εκμαξασα, old verb εκμασσω, to wipe off or away (Isa 12:3; 13:5; Lu 7:38, 44). Note the Aramaic form Μαριαμ as usual in John, but Μαριας in verse 1. When John wrote, it was as Jesus had foretold (Mt 26:13), for the fame of Mary of Bethany rested on the incident of the anointing of Jesus. The effort to link Mary of Bethany with Mary Magdalene and then both names with the sinful woman of Lu 7:36-50 is gratuitous and to my mind grotesque and cruel to the memory of both Mary of Bethany and Mary Magdalene. Bernard may be taken as a specimen: "The conclusion is inevitable that John (or his editor) regarded Mary of Bethany as the same person who is described by Luke as αμαρτωλος." This critical and artistic heresy has already been discussed in Vol. II on Luke's Gospel. Suffice it here to say that Luke introduces Mary Magdalene as an entirely new character in 8:2 and that the details in Lu 7:36-50; Joh 12:1-8 have only superficial resemblances and serious disagreements. John is not here alluding to Luke's record, but preparing for his own in chapter 12. What earthly difficulty is there in two different women under wholly different circumstances doing a similar act for utterly different purposes?